SHOULD LATIN MEN AND WOMEN HAVE GENITALS?

 The appellation Latinx is an invention by agringado college kids, who may have Latinos among them, but are still immersed in the "politically correct" BS of Postmodernism. No one south of the border would dream of using it. It goes against the grain of the Spanish language, and is disrespectful. True, the Spanish language is a colonial language, but we have made it our own. I would be willing to bet that those who use that appellation don't even speak Spanish. (For example, they write "gente" as "jente" as if dictionaries didn't exist). The proper use of inclusivity of the word is Latino/a. That includes everybody without desexualizing them, which if you think about it is a horrible thing to do. Spanish is a sexual language, where even things and even feelings are either male or female. Spanish is a language where, for example, a cup is feminine, happiness is feminine,  a building is masculine, a car is masculine, and so on for all words, no exceptions (There are a few words that go against the basic rule, but they are still sexualized). Are you going to put an "x" at the end of the hundreds of thousands of words in the  language? Really? English is founded on the "it" where there is no male or female. The word in English is Latin--no ending. The "x" erases our genitals. Screw English and screw y'all. Váyanse a lx chingadx.